Concerning John of Disputations post on the needful connection btwn Mary's Assumption and her lack of original sin (i.e. sin as the cause of death):
1) It might be semantics, but can it be left that original sin is the cause of the physical corruption of the flesh, which, both parties can agree did not occur to Mary?
(Both parties meaning those who believe she did die and those who believe she didn't).
2) It is true that the Assumption can be unmoored from original sin by pointing to the examples of Enoch & Elijah. But what that does is show how the Assumption is not an unreasonable article of faith. Since we believe she was assumed to heaven either way, either while still alive or after death, it does not speak to the sin=death scenerio.
3) It is true that Christ died and was sinless and was without original sin, but wouldn't you say that His was a 'special case' in the sense that it was his divine mission to die?
I'm persuaded that Mary did die first, but I'm wondering how John reconciles that with his comments implying that theology requires that she not die?